If $$x$$ is very small in magnitude compared with $$a,$$ then $${\left( {\frac{a}{{a + x}}} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}} + {\left( {\frac{a}{{a - x}}} \right)^{\frac{1}{2}}}\,$$ can be approximately equal to
Releted MCQ Question on Algebra >> Binomial Theorem
Releted Question 1
Given positive integers $$r > 1, n > 2$$ and that the co - efficient of $${\left( {3r} \right)^{th}}\,{\text{and }}{\left( {r + 2} \right)^{th}}$$ terms in the binomial expansion of $${\left( {1 + x} \right)^{2n}}$$ are equal. Then
If in the expansion of $${\left( {1 + x} \right)^m}{\left( {1 - x} \right)^n},$$ the co-efficients of $$x$$ and $${x^2}$$ are $$3$$ and $$- 6\,$$ respectively, then $$m$$ is